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Beugt man jemand oder niemand mit Endung?

The declension of indefinitve pronouns "jemand" or "niemand" seems not to follow strict rules. I can read all of the following:

Er hat mit jemandem gesprochen - Er hat mit jemand gesprochen
Sie hat niemanden gesehen - Sie hat niemand gesehen
Das ist niemandes Schuld - Das ist niemands Schuld

From this question I learned that not declining may be historically correct. Duden allows both variants not giving any help on what to prefer.

From a Google Ngram we see, that declined variants are increasingly used:

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Answers here express that declension is felt to be appropriate in a written text. Are there still situations where using the non-declined forms are preferable?

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Das hat mir wieder mal niemand gesagt - war aber eigentlich klar, dass es diese Frage schon geben muss. –  Takkat Sep 7 '11 at 8:08
Eigentlich soll Herr StackExchange-Engine bereits nach dem Eingeben des Titels verwandte Fragen anzeigen, was meistens ganz gut klappt (weshalb ich es auf SO mitunter als Alternative zur Suche einsetze). Aber es funktioniert leider nicht immer so gut ;) –  OregonGhost Sep 7 '11 at 8:09
Vielleicht weil eine Frage auf Deutsch, die andere auf Englisch gestellt wurde? –  Takkat Sep 7 '11 at 8:11
Ich habe auch den Verdacht, dass die Engine da etwas durcheinander kommt und die falschen Schwerpunkte setzt, andererseits hast du die wesentlichen Schlagworte (jemand/niemand) im Titel verwendet. Sollte funktionieren. Vielleicht ein Bug? Die SOStacked-App hat übrigens gerade einen Fix für Sonderzeichen bekommen, damit sie auch mit GL&U funktioniert, nur zwei oder drei Wochen nach meinem Bugreport :) –  OregonGhost Sep 7 '11 at 8:20
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marked as duplicate by Takkat, splattne Sep 7 '11 at 9:47

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

2 Answers

up vote 1 down vote accepted

Nice point! In fact, both variants seem to be valid (see <1>, <2>, <3> and <4>), but the only explanation given is (as Hackworth pointed out already) that dropping the suffix is common in colloquial language.

EDIT: i think it's better to reduce the answer to the statement that both variants are orthographically valid; for deeper discussions, see this question and following comments and responses.

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+1 nice references - thank you. –  Takkat Sep 7 '11 at 8:02
As Hackworth's answer, not true. The suffix was added in colloquial language, and it is common for written language to use the form without suffix (see any book, for example). –  OregonGhost Sep 7 '11 at 8:06
hmm - really interesting! Here's an interesting google ngram chart regarding this question - so, without doubt, in the year 2300 jemand and jemanden will surely be on the same level ;-) –  tohuwawohu Sep 7 '11 at 8:18
@tohuwawohu: Yes, though don't forget that "jemand" competes with "jemanden" and "jemandem" in this chart ;) I like the suffixed forms much better, I hope they'll become the right form :D –  OregonGhost Sep 7 '11 at 8:22
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Jemand/Niemand for Akkusativ or Dativ is at best colloquial; you should not use it in written language.

Niemandes/Jemandes is the correct form to be used as a Genitiv; Niemands/Jemands is again colloquial. It is worth noting that the Genitiv form is rare nowadays. Most people seem to prefer rewording such a sentence to avoid the Genitiv, such as "Daran hat jemand/niemand Schuld"

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Duden allows both variants without stating that the non-declined forms are colloquial. –  Takkat Sep 7 '11 at 7:59
This is not true; Jemand/Niemand for Akkusativ/Dativ is the correct written form. See my linked question for details, and see Belles Lettres for an absurdly detailed explanation ("Die gebeugten Formen sind ganz junge Neuerungen der Umgangssprache.") –  OregonGhost Sep 7 '11 at 8:04
Note that I prefer the suffixed form - I was quite surprised when I found out (here at GL&U (; ) that it is not the better ("gehobenere") form. –  OregonGhost Sep 7 '11 at 8:08
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