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I wanted to say in German the following sentence:

He is a state approved male nurse.

Google translate came up with:

Er ist ein staatlich anerkannter Krankenpfleger.

I am wondering why 'staatlich' is not inflected. After attempting to understand the information on canoo.net I have concluded that 'staatlich' is an invariable adjective i.e. one that does not have comparative and superlative forms. That makes sense, but if that is true, then it should surely follow that the adjective 'anerkannt' should also remain uninflected, as there are no comparative or superlative forms of that either.

So the question is, why is 'staatlich' not inflected when 'anerkannt' is?

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marked as duplicate by chirlu, Vogel612, Em1, c.p., Hubert Schölnast Nov 7 '13 at 14:10

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

i somehow get the feeling, this question comes up regularly.. –  Vogel612 Oct 31 '13 at 19:07
@Vogel612 Wird Zeit, dass wir die Frage mal in einer allgemeinen Form haben, so dass man auch danach suchen kann... –  Em1 Oct 31 '13 at 23:03
Though here it looks as if the question roots from some deeper misunderstandings of adjective inflections. –  Wrzlprmft Nov 1 '13 at 8:26

1 Answer 1

up vote 7 down vote accepted

Because "staatlich" here is actually an adverb and applies/relates to "anerkannt", not to "Krankenpflieger".

I had the same question, see "Eine schrecklich nette Familie": why? and the questions referenced from there.

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Note that both words are in the default degree of comparison, i.e., the positive, and are not inflected in this respect. Inflection for comparison and case–gender–number inflection are two separate things. –  Wrzlprmft Oct 31 '13 at 18:29

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