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I've encountered this sentence as an example on wiktionary:
In den letzten Tagen hat es wieder vermehrt Anschläge im Irak gegeben.
As far as I know vermehrt is a partizip 2 form of vermehren which is acting as a verb here. But how is it declined here? Shouldn't it be vermehrte according to strong declination of adjectives (without article)?
In den letzten Tagen hat es wieder vermehrt Anschläge im Irak gegeben.
In that sentence, the Partizip II is not declined because it is used as an adverb. It describes the predicate hat gegeben.
In den letzten Tagen hat es wieder vermehrte Anschläge im Irak gegeben.
Here the Partizip II is declined and becomes an attribute to Anschläge. The meaning is pretty much the same because there is no other valid interpretation in this case.
However, in simpler cases it often makes a big difference:
Sie isst vermehrt Obst.
She eats fruit more often.
Sie isst vermehrtes Obst.
She eats propagated fruit.
That's because the verb vermehren (as many other verbs) has multiple meanings which shine through.
