Despite what is stated in the original podcast, and repeated in the various answers, it is not correct to say that there “was no Germany in the Middle Ages”, and certainly not that “Germany didn't exist until late 19th century (1871)”. The Latin “Germania” is used since the time of the Roman Empire, and the German “Deutschland” is (as Pfeifer puts it):
aus Fügungen wie mhd. in Diutischemi lande (Annolied, um 1085)
entstanden, im Mhd. vereinzelt schon in Diutisk lant (Kaiserchronik,
um 1150), spätmhd. Tiutschland; Zusammenschreibung setzt sich
endgültig erst im 16. Jh. durch.
Of course, the boundaries of “Germania” and “Diutisk lant” are not the same as those of the modern country, but they do imply the existence of a specific geographic and ethnic entity. In this sense, “im heutigen Deutschland” means the territory corresponding to modern “Germany”, but not necessarily identical with what mediaeval people called “Diutisk lant” or “Germania”