Why does

we have rented this villa.

translate to

wir haben dieses Ferienhaus gemietet?

why user past participle if it the tense is still present?

  • 2
    "rented" is past tense, as well. It is a literal translation, where is the actual problem?
    – a2sng
    Nov 7, 2012 at 7:41

1 Answer 1


The tense is not present, it's "Perfekt" -- what you'd call "present perfect" in English, but which expresses actions or states having occurred in the past in German.

The surface structures are actually the same in English and German:

have rented

haben gemietet

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.