Taking the following example:
It stands to reason that most people will not buy a new car if they don't think they can pay for it.
The "stands to reason" could be replaced by "logical" as in:
It's logical that most people will not buy a new car if they don't think they can pay for it.
With this in mind, I've looked around for a direct translation, and came up with:
┌───────────────────────────────────┬────────────────────┬──────────────────────────┐
│ Location │ Source used │ Translation obtained │
├───────────────────────────────────┼────────────────────┼──────────────────────────┤
│ 1) http://dict.leo.org │ stands to reason │ nahe liegen │
├───────────────────────────────────┼────────────────────┼──────────────────────────┤
│ 2) http://translate.google.pt │ stands to reason │ steht zu vermuten, │
├───────────────────────────────────┼────────────────────┼──────────────────────────┤
│ 3) http://translation.babylon.com │ stands to reason │ logisch │
└───────────────────────────────────┴────────────────────┴──────────────────────────┘
1. Link to translation result at http://dict.leo.org
2. Link to translation result at http://translate.google.pt
3. Link to translation page at http://translation.babylon.com (no direct link to translation result)
With this direct translations, the result from "Babylon" was "logisch" that translates to "logical", but all three results are different.
I'm wondering which one of these direct translations (or other) is actually accurate given the context of the provided example?